Sample Proficiency Test 5   

GRAMMATICAL COMPETENCE 20 marks

READING 20 marks 2 hours 15 minutes

WRITING 20 marks

LISTENING 20 marks, approximately 30 minutes.

INSTRUCTIONS

1. GRAMMATICAL COMPETENCE

Read these texts and choose the right answer. Only one answer is correct. Mark your answers on your answer sheet with a cross (X).

TEXT 1 (estimated time: 10 minutes)

WITCHES

Modern science started in the sixteenth century. However, most men and women knew __0_C_ of science. To them, the world was full of spirits and witches. Witches (nearly always women) were supposed __1__ their souls to the devil. In return, he had given them magic powers. They __2__ use magic and give people the ‘‘evil eye’‘. If they did so, their victims would be taken ill, or die, or be hit by bad luck.

Witches lived alone, apart from a cat __3__ helped them. So village people kept away from old women who lived alone with their cats. They hung horse-shoes and bunches of herbs over their own cottage doors to protect them __4__ the witches’ powers.

Not only the ignorant and poor believed in witches. In 1542, the gentry, merchants, and lords in Parliament made witchcraft a crime. The law stayed in force __5__ 1736. In that time, a few hundred women, most of them old, were hanged. (Witches were not burned in England.)

A simple chain of events could bring a ‘‘witch’‘ to trial. An old woman would come begging at a farmhouse door. The busy farmer’s wife would __6__ her off with nothing. Shortly after, the farmer would fall ill and die. His wife would remember the old woman, and accuse __7__ a witch. The old woman would be arrested and tortured. Under torture, she would ‘‘confess’‘ that she was a witch.

In the late seventeenth century, educated people stopped __8__ in witches. Poor old women were __9__ brought to court, but judges refused to find them guilty. The last hanging for witchcraft in England __10__ at Exeter in 1685.

0. A) anything B) enough C) nothing D) all

1. A) to be sold B) to be selling C) having sold D) to have sold

2. A) managed B) knew to C) were able D) could

3. A) that B) whose C) it D) what

4. A) from B) off C) of D) at

5. A) up B) since C) until D) from

6. A) refuse B) send C) pull D) deny

7. A) that she would be B) her of being C) that she was D) her to be

8. A) to believe B) to believing C) believing D) believe

9. A) even B) still C) no any longer D) not yet

10. A) had place B) was placed C) made place D) took place

 

TEXT 2 (estimated time: 10 minutes)

CHILD BRIDES

Last January a 13-year-old English girl __0_B_ an 18-year-old Turkish man under Islamic law, __ 11__ under both British and Turkish civil law the girl was too young. The marriage provoked a strong disapproval in Britain, __12__ eventually made the girl __13__ to Britain, where she was put under the protection of a court of law (because her parents were considered to have acted unreasonably in agreeing to the marriage).

Since its foundation in 1945, the United Nations __14__ into its major agreements the need to establish minimum age for marriage. But the custom of marriage is a highly sensitive cultural issue, mainly because it is __15__ connected with women’s rights and societal traditions and practices, and __16__ on marriage vary widely between countries. Some countries, particularly in West Africa, still do not have a legal minimum age for marriage.

In the West, a 13-year-old is still considered a child. Even getting married __17__ one’s late teens is not usually encouraged because married life is __18__ to interfere with a young woman’s education and will consequently restrict opportunities in later life. And there are also physical dangers __19__ giving birth so young.

Director of Anti-Slavery International Lesley Roberts, who campaigns for women’s rights within marriage, says that it is considered unwise for girls __20__ eleven or twelve to conceive.

0. A) married to B) married C) married with D) got married

11. A) even though B) nevertheless C) despite D) however

12. A) that B) which C) what D) it

13. A) to have returned B) to return C) return D) returning

14. A) wrote B) writes C) has written D) had written

15. A) such B) so C) enough D) many

16. A) lines B) tasks C) rules D) matters

17. A) at B) on C) in D) of

18. A) probably B) possibly C) unlikely D) likely

19. A) in B) on C) for D) with

20. A) so younger as B) as young as C) youngest than D) youngest as

 

2. READING COMPREHENSION

FIRST PASSAGE (estimated time: 20 minutes)

Read this text and then do the exercises on the next page.

THE AFRICAN LAWYER

Georgette Djaba, 39, lives in South London with her children and works as a family solicitor. She is of African origin and, unfortunately, has experienced racism:

When I walk into a courtroom, most strangers assume that I’m a social worker or a client and they’re always astonished when they realise I’m the lawyer. They look at me as if I have no right to be in my position. Last year, one white barrister even asked me not to sit next to her. But I learned long ago not to take racism personally. 5 10 15 20 25 30 35

We came to London from Ghana, which was still a British colony, in 1972 when I was 12, because of political instability at home. We were already well-travelled by then – my father was an entrepreneur. At airports, white people would assume we were servants, and asked us to carry their luggage. My father always enjoyed telling them he was a businessman.

We moved to South London and from the outset we were ostracised. We lived in a beautiful five-bedroom house, but our neighbours wouldn’t let their children play with my brothers and me. They were very suspicious of my parents, thinking they were drug dealers.

At the private girls’ school I attended, the teachers were wonderful, but fellow pupils would ask: ‘‘Did you live in a tree in Ghana? Did you wear a grass skirt?’‘ They had never seen an African girl, except in corny films, and were merely ignorant.

But it did upset me that none of the white girls would play with me. I used to feel terribly lonely and left out. So when I left school I returned to Ghana to work and was there soon reunited with a childhood sweetheart.

We had a baby boy, but when I was in my 20s, the relationship ended. Afterwards I had a serious relationship with a black Ghanaian lawyer, and fell pregnant again. But having lived in the West, I found it very difficult to settle in Ghana, too. The men I met were very chauvinistic, and I had tasted freedom and seen how women can have their own careers and be equally successful. I wanted more from life.

So, when I was 24, I returned to Britain, where my daughter was born. I wanted to become a lawyer to help win justice and equality for all people. I enrolled at North London University, doing part-time secretarial work to pay my fees and support my children, and studying late into the night.

Though I love my work, I’m convinced my colour has made it much more difficult to be successful in a predominantly white, middle-class, male profession. For example, as we neared the end of the degree course, nearly all the white students had places at Law School and many had sponsorship from legal firms. Yet only a handful of black students found similar opportunities. I applied to about 400 law firms, but received rejection after rejection. In desperation, I wrote to the Society of Black Lawyers. With their backing, I was accepted by the college of Law, in London, a day before the course began.

All I want for my children, who were bullied at their London primary schools, and for future generations, is that they are treated fairly.

l 

Identify the SIX TRUE statements below apart from the example (statement A) according to the text. Write the corresponding letters in the spaces provided on your answer sheet (numbers 21 to 26, in any order).

A. People get surprised when they know the writer is a lawyer. TRUE

B. People accept her status at work.

C. Once, when she was in a courtroom, a witness refused to sit next to her.

D. They went to London from Ghana when it became an independent country.

E. By the time she got to England they had already visited many places.

F. When they moved to London people refused to meet them.

G. Her parents made a lot of money as drug dealers.

H. She found it difficult to make friends at school.

I. When she was at school her classmates used to see films eating pop corn.

J. When she returned to Ghana she married a very young boy she had just met.

K. While living in Ghana she thought women in Britain were better treated.

L. When she was living in Ghana she felt free and was a successful lawyer.

M. She wanted to become a lawyer to take revenge for what she had suffered in her childhood.

N. She had to work in order to enter university.

O. Her children received unfair treatment at school.

Match the following words from the text with their definition or synonyms according to the context. There are two definitions that do not match. Write the corresponding letters on your answer sheet. The first one has been done for you as an example. 

0. courtroom (line 3) G

27. outset (line 12)

28. degree (line 33)

29. handful (line 34)

30. backing (line 36)

A. beginning

B. small amount

C. support, help

D. university qualification

E. outer part

F. made by hand

G. room where a court of law meets

 

SECOND PASSAGE (estimated time: 20 minutes)

Read this text with gaps and then do the exercises on the next page.

FEAR OF FATHERHOOD

For most of my life I’ve been sure I would never be a father. Nor, to be frank, did I want to be. _____0____D_. When friends or even family members talked about their children, something inside me would simply switch off and I would find an excuse to change the subject.

I’m sure this was because my own parents’ marriage was unhappy and ended in the courts when I was 13. ______31______. So I grew up regarding marriage as a trap, an emotional agony that could only be prolonged by having children.

It wasn’t until my early thirties that I met someone who gave me cause to question my certainty. ______32______. I knew Anne-Marie wanted to be a mother one day and I felt she would make a wonderful one. By the time we married, I had succeeded in disguising my unease about having a family.

Fourteen months later she discovered she was pregnant. My initial reaction was one of amazement at how happy I felt. ______33______. But soon my reactions became more complicated. After the exhilaration of the first week, something else was growing.

We decided not to tell anyone our news for a while, ‘‘in case anything goes wrong’‘. The pregnancy felt like a shared conspiracy, a covert game being played by two participants who didn’t know all the rules just yet. ______34______. It allowed me to pretend that it wasn’t really happening.

After a short time I began to see that what I was doing was ridiculous. I tried to confront the reality of what was happening. How could someone with a childhood like mine ever begin to cope with this role? Statisticians tell us that most children of divorce will end up in unhappy marriages themselves.

I think my fear improved our relationship. ______35______. I would silently repeat them, thinking about the words, and whenever I did that, the fear receded. Yes, our marriage might fail – but whose might not?

As soon as I stopped worrying about my own damaged childhood, I felt my wife and myself become closer. There were no big chats about the future, we simply seemed to accept that suddenly it was there. I think of my wedding day as the happiest day of my life. ______36______.

I had managed to stop thinking I was doomed to be a bad parent, but that isn’t the same thing as believing you’ll be a good one.

Adapted from The Sunday Telegraph 

Fit these sentences into the gaps of the text. There are two sentences that do not belong to the text. Match the gap numbers with the letters as in the example (number 0 in the text). Write your answers on the answer sheet.

A. Even after their separation, we children continued to be the focus of their arguments.

B. After a few weeks the bad dreams stopped.

C. Certainly it forced me to consider the promises I had made to my wife on our wedding day.

D. The very idea was painful enough to make me avoid discussing it. EXAMPLE

E. I never knew what extinction meant until the pregnancy.

F. Even my attitude to the prospect of having children softened a little during our courtship.

G. However, the first month of the pregnancy was the real beginning of our marriage.

H. For several days I walked around feeling both cheerful and positive.

I. A lot of couples say this is fun, although for me the secrecy had other uses too.

Find a word or expression in the text above for each of the following definitions. You are given the grammatical category of the words you need to find. The first one has been done for you as an example.

0. Noun reason, justification (between lines 1 & 10) excuse

37. Noun very great pain or suffering of mind or body (between lines 1 & 10)

38. Verb changing the usual appearance so as to hide the truth

(between lines 11 & 20)

39. Adjective hidden, not openly shown (between lines 11 & 20)

40. Verb diminished, became weaker or less intense (between lines 21 & 31)

 

3. LISTENING COMPREHENSION

You will have 1 minute 30 seconds to read the questions before you hear each passage. Each passage will be played twice.

FIRST PASSAGE

You are going to hear a passage on the town of Gallup. Listen to it and choose the most appropriate alternative A, B, or C according to the text. Mark your answers on your answer sheet with a cross (X).

0. Gallup lies on Route 66 that goes from B

A) New Mexico to Chicago.

B) Chicago to Los Angeles.

C) Los Angeles to New Mexico.

41. The Navajo Indian Reservation is the ….. Indian Reservation in the USA.

A) biggest B) oldest C) most traditional

42. Native Americans traditionally have

A) broad faces and flat cheekbones. B) broad noses and prominent cheekbones.

C) broad faces and high cheekbones.

43. Indian shops sell

A) souvenirs. B) jewels. C) postcards.

44. The Navajos

A) have lived in this region for hundreds of years.

B) arrived in this region in the mid 50s.

C) have lived in this region for less than a hundred years.

45. You may not be warmly welcomed by the Navajos because

A) they do not trust their Hopi neighbours.

B) they preserve their traditional way of life.

C) they have been unfairly treated by all governments.

46. The land is

A) rich both agriculturally and in natural resources.

B) agriculturally poor but rich in natural resources.

C) agriculturally rich but poor in natural resources. 

Sample exam 2004 8

SECOND PASSAGE

You are going to hear an interview with David Willetts, the worldwide known musical performer. Are the following statements True, False or Not Mentioned? Write T (True), F (False) or N (Not mentioned) on your answer sheet.

0. David Willetts played the leading male role in The Phantom of the Opera. T

47. David used to play the piano for his mother.

48. The King and I was David’s first amateur performance.

49. David thinks that he is not well paid for what he does.

50. He thinks that performers’ reputation depends on their last interpretation.

51. People have to queue for hours to buy the tickets for David’s show.

52. David believes that he has to give more than 100% when he acts.

53. When he’s on the stage, he’s very conscious of the effect he has on the audience. 54. He regrets he can’t bring much help for people with disfigured faces.

THIRD PASSAGE

You are going to hear a report on the Royal Scotsman, a luxury train. Listen to it and fill in the blanks with one word you hear. Write your answers on your answer sheet.

0. The Royal Scotsman offers exclusive tours between London, _____, and the Scottish Highlands.

0. Edinburgh

55. The train has four sections: an Observation car, two Dining Cars, four _____ Cars, and two extra cars.

56. The train is usually pulled by a diesel locomotive but in the Highlands it is replaced with a _____ engine.

57. One of the two principal railway routes follows the north-west of England and the other the north-east _____ .

58. The passengers got to know each other over _____ tea.

59. The train passed through the university city of Oxford and the _____ town of Banbury.

60. After disembarking in Warwick, they _____ the train in Stratford-upon-Avon.

 

4. WRITING

Write two compositions (150 – 180 words each ) on the following topics:

(estimated time: 45 minutes)

1. You were visiting some friends in their flat late one evening when you heard someone shout ‘‘Fire’‘. Describe what happened next.

2. Your friend, Anna, has just lost her job. Write to her and include these points:

 • Offer your support,

 • ask her about her plans for the future,

 • invite her to spend a few days with you.

 

KEY

FIRST PART: ______ / 60 (pass mark 40) Correction of Writing: Yes / No WRITING: ______ / 20 (pass mark 12) Called for oral exam: Yes / No

1. GRAMMATICAL COMPETENCE ______ / 20

TEXT 1

1. A B C D 2. A B C D 3. A B C D 4. A B C D 5. A B C D

6. A B C D 7. A B C D 8. A B C D 9. A B C D 10. A B C D

TEXT 2

11. A B C D 12. A B C D 13. A B C D 14. A B C D 15. A B C D

16. A B C D 17. A B C D 18. A B C D 19. A B C D 20. A B C D

2. READING COMPREHENSION

FIRST PASSAGE

21. __E__ 22. __F__ 23. __H__ 24. __K__ 25. __N__ 26. __O__

(in any order)

27. __A__ 28. __D__ 29. __B__ 30. __C__

SECOND PASSAGE

31. __A__ 32. __F__ 33. __H__ 34. __I__ 35. __C__ 36. __G__

37. agony (line 7)

38. disguising (line 11) 

Sample exam 2004 11

39. covert (line 16)

40. receded (line 24)

3. LISTENING COMPREHENSION

FIRST PASSAGE

41. A B C 42. A B C 43. A B C

44. A B C 45. A B C 46. A B C

SECOND PASSAGE

47. ___F___ 48. ___T___ 49. ___N___ 50. ___T___

51. ___N___ 52. ___T___ 53. ___F___ 54. ___F___

THIRD PASSAGE

55. Sleeping 56. steam 57. coast 58. afternoon 59. market 60. rejoined 

Sample exam 2004 12

FIRST PASSAGE

Another country

Gallup is an unremarkable but not untypical New Mexico town. It lies on the old route 66, that runs from Chicago through three time zones and eight states to Los Angeles. The main street is lined with fast food joints, cheap motels, seedy bars and bottle shops. At night time the desert town is lit up by an endless array of neon signs and billboards. When not passed by completely, it is a convenient stopover between Santa Fe to the east and the Grand Canyon to the west.

What many passing motorists do not realize, however, is that Gallup sits on the southern border of the largest Indian reservation in the United States – the Navajo Nation – that covers some 25,000 square miles and stretches northwards as far as Lake Powell in Utah. Look around more closely and you begin to notice the broad faces and high cheekbones of Native Americans. Indian curio shops do a brisk trade selling silver and turquoise jewelry to the tourists. Outside town you might be lucky enough to see a local rodeo, where all the bronco riding and steer roping is done by Indian cowboys.

Part American and part Third World, the Navajos and their Hopi neighbours have lived in this region for centuries. Despite being U.S. citizens, they do not really consider themselves a part of the national melting pot and retain strong links with the traditional Indian way of life. Part of the reason for this is the maltreatment they have received from the U.S. government over the years and the Mexican and the Spanish before them – so don’t expect a warm welcome.

The Navajos enjoy sovereignty over this immense but agriculturally unproductive land. The area is rich in natural resources – oil, timber, coal, uranium, water- which have been the major source of income for the reservation residents in the past. But these are depletable resources and some to them are fast disappearing. To avoid a future crisis, Navajo policy makers are now looking to widen their economic base. But the transition is not an easy one.

Time: 2:07

SECOND PASSAGE

David Willetts

Having played the leading male roles in both THE PHANTOM OF OPERA and LES MISÉRABLES, David Willetts is one of the top musical performers in the world today. His meteoric rise to fame came within just five years of turning professional.

Born in Birmingham in 1952, he and his sister used to sing at home with their mother accompanying them on the piano. His first amateur performance was in THE KING AND I, and from this and other small stage productions he was hired for his first professional role in LES MISÉRABLES in 1985.

SPEAK UP: How do you manage to keep your enthusiasm for the character and your interpretation fresh?

DAVID WILLETS: I think the first thing, anybody who’s in our business as performers will tell you, that to be paid for doing a job you really enjoy is one of the most wonderful things in the world. So there’s always that, that you go out there knowing that it’s no one’s right, it’s no one’s privilege, to be up there doing this; it’s something that, you know, you’ve worked hard for, and you have to keep … the old cliché, you know, about you’re only as good as your last performance is very, very true. So there’s two things, A: You try and be as good as you can every night because it’s your reputation, and you are trying … the product that you’re selling is yourself. So that’s one side of it. But the other side of it is a pride in your job, and also the fact that people have had tickets to see this show for 12 months, and this is their big day. For them it’s an opening night, you know, and this is the way I look at it: you can’t go out and give 99 per cent, you have to go out and give 110 per cent. And that’s what it’s all about, and this is why people keep coming back. 

Sample exam 2004 13

SP: Jean Valjean in LES MISERABLES and the Phantom – has playing these characters left any sort of lasting impression on you?

DW: Well, there’s various things, there’s various things. I mean, you don’t realize when you’re doing a character and you’re performing a show what effect you have on the public. You don’t realize because what you’re doing is your job, and you’re out there to create a character. And from the letters that I have from people who are disfigured, for instance – you know, when I’m doing now the Phantom – both kind of visually and maybe mentally, when they come to see the show, they write me letters saying, ‘‘Well, you know, maybe life isn’t so bad after all, maybe we can cope and you’ve shown us something that… and maybe a way of handling the situation’‘. And you don’t realize that, and it makes you very, very humble to realize that there are people out there… I mean, I can take this make-up off every night, there’s people who have got these problems for the rest of their life. And, you know, if we can … if I as an actor can bring some sort of help or looking to the future for these people, then that s a great feeling.

Time: 2:53

THIRD PASSAGE

The Royal Scotsman

There are only a handful of luxury trains left in the world. One of the few still in operation is The Royal Scotsman, which runs exclusive tours between London, Edinburgh and the Scottish Highlands. The train is made up of an Observation Car with open-air verandah, two Dining Cars, four sleeping Cars and two cars for the crew and train services. A total of thirty-two passengers can be carried in luxurious comfort. The train is usually pulled by a diesel locomotive, but on part of the Highlands section this is replaced with an old-fashioned steam engine.

There are two principal railway routes between London and Scotland. One runs up the north west of England, and the other follows the north-east coast. During the 1920s and ‘30s increasingly sumptuous trains were introduced, culminating in The Coronation on the western route and The Flying Scotsman on the eastern route. The Royal Scotsman, which began operating in 1985, continues this tradition of travelling in grand style.

Friday, Day 1: London to Stratford.

Passengers boarded the train at Paddington Station. We were welcome aboard by a piper in full regalia and a glass of champagne. The train left the station on schedule at 2.30 pm and passengers got to know each other over afternoon tea as we passed through the Thames Valley. The train continued through the university city of Oxford and the market town of Banbury before arriving in Warwick. Here we disembarked. We rejoined the train in Stratford-upon-Avon in time to change for a formal dinner while a group of musicians played classical music in the Observation Car.

Time: 1:41 

Sample exam 2004 14

MARKING SCHEME FOR THE WRITING

OI Overall Impression

Prior to analysing the composition, the examiner must read it through for an overall impression regarding two aspects:

a) extent to which it relates to the exercise that was set (relevance).

b) extent to which the text as a whole is comprehensible.

5 marks Fully relates to the exercise set; coherent, pertinent and fully comprehensible at the first reading.

4 marks Between 5 and 3.

3 marks Does not fully relate to the exercise set. Certain expressions must be reread and even after doing so may not be fully understood.

2 marks Between 3 and 1.

1 mark Hardly relates to the exercise set. Almost every sentence has to be re-read and even after doing so may not he fully understood.

0 marks The question has either not been answered or does not relate to the exercise set.

LR Linguistic Range

5 marks Language is suitable for the level required and the exercise set, shows variety and ability to adapt structures, vocabulary and connectives to the different aspects of the exercise.

4 marks Between 5 and 3.

3 marks Limited command of the language for the level expected, but adequate for the exercise set. Some repetition of the same structures, vocabulary and connectives.

2 marks Between 3 and 1.

1 mark Very poor language for the level expected; too few structures frequently repeated; shows a very limited vocabulary, with hardly any connectives.

0 marks Either no answer or too short to enable adequate assessment.

LA Linguistic Accuracy

The same mistake, though frequently repeated, will only be taken into account once.

5 marks Syntax, morphology, spelling and punctuation are correct or nearly correct.

4 marks Between 5 and 3.

3 marks Syntax, morphology, spelling and punctuation are sufficiently correct, with some mistakes.

2 marks Between 3 and 1.

1 mark Contains a wide range of all kinds of mistakes.

0 marks Either no answer or too short to enable adequate assessment. 

Sample exam 2004 15

ORAL EXAM

You will be required to talk about the points below. You may use the picture for extra ideas. The examiners might ask you more questions or discuss your views.

OLD AGE

(Pictures)

1. Old people in your family. Your grandparents.

2. Changes brought about by old age.

3. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of these alternatives:

a) An elderly mother or father living with their son/daughter and his/ her family. b) Old people living on their own with or without some sort of help at home. c) Nursing homes. 

Sample exam 2004 16

MARKING SCHEME FOR THE ORAL TEST

Communication Skills

5 marks Candidate speaks coherently and appropriately to this level. Ideas and opinions are expressed with ease and fluency.

4 marks Between 5 and 3

3 marks His/her discourse is generally coherent but not entirely appropriate to this level. Expresses ideas and opinions with visible effort, though he/she can make him-/herself understood.

2 marks Between 3 and 1

1 mark Discourse limited to short sentences and the language is inappropriate to the level. He/she has very little fluency, and can hardly make him-/herself understood.

0 marks

Pronunciation

5 marks Fully understandable. Pronunciation and intonation are largely correct, although influence from L1 may be clearly evident.

4 marks Between 5 and 3

3 marks May be understood but there is a strong influence from L1. The poor pronunciation and intonation require some effort from the listener in order to be understood.

2 marks Between 3 and 1

1 mark A considerable effort is required on the part of the listener.

0 marks

Grammatical Competence

5 marks Uses a broad range of syntactic structures and morphological elements without systematic mistakes.

4 marks Between 5 and 3

3 marks Uses a sufficient though limited range of syntactic structures and morphological elements with few, serious mistakes.

2 marks Between 3 and 1

1 mark Uses a very limited range of syntactic structures and morphological elements, with many mistakes.

0 marks

Vocabulary

5 marks Varied and appropriate. Enables candidate to express him-/herself adequately.

4 marks Between 5 and 3

3 marks Limited, though appropriate in general. Enables candidate to express him-/herself without great difficulty.

2 marks Between 3 and 1

1 mark Very limited and repetitive vocabulary.

0 marks

Each examiner will award 5 points for each aspect considered, according to the candidate’s overall performance. The final result is given by the sum of the total marks awarded by the examiners.

Sample Proficiency Test 4   
 
SECTION I. USE OF ENGLISH
Choose the most suitable alternatives to complete the following texts.
Text 1.
A report published by the Center for the Public Interest says Americans spend about half their food budgets  _____ (1) meals eaten outside the home. Many restaurants, cafes and diners have increased the size of their servings. It is difficult to know the amount of fat and nutrients in the food  _____ (2)  in restaurants. Processed foods sold in food stores are  ____ (3) to include this information. The food industry advertises a lot and not always truthfully. McDonald’s and Hershey Foods have given money to an international food organization to set up an Internet Web site. Their goal is to get children _____ (4) more. However, critics say the food industry is not trying _____ (5)  to protect the public’s health.
1. A) for                      B) in               C) on                      D) at
2. A) serves                 B) served        C) which serves        D) which served
3. A) required               B) received      C) requested           D) recommended
4. A) to exercise           B) exercise      C) exercised            D) for exercising
5. A) enough hardly       B) enough hard   C) hard enough         D) hardly enough
Text 2.
Canadian researchers have discovered a set of genes that determine the lifespan of the common nematode, a type of worm. This _____ (6) shreds new light on the aging process which may eventually allow _____ (7) the inexorable process of aging and death.The team at McGill University in Montreal was able to increase the lifespan of the nematode fivefold by manipulating the newly discovered genes. Altering the genes apparently slowed the metabolism of the worms to _____ (8) leisurely pace. This in turn may slow the accumulation of the DNA defects thought to _____ (9) aging. Although there are undoubtedly other factors _____ (10)  to aging in humans, researchers are confident that the discovery will _____ (11)  invaluable clues about this mysterious process.
6. A) invention                        B) finding         C) notion                  D) conclusion
7. A) them to delay              C) for them delaying
   B) them delaying               D) for them to delaying
8. A) much                           B) a more              C) more                D) a such
9. A) take on                        B) cure                 C) lead to              D) struggle
10. A) contributing                B) donating            C) advancing          D) improving
11. A) benefit                       B) achieve             C) attain               D) provide
 
Text 3.
Natural flavorings and fragrances are often costly and limited in supply.  _____ (12) , the vital ingredient in a rose fragnance _____ (13) from natural rose oil at a cost of thousands of dollars a pound. Since the early twentieth century, success in reproducing these substances _____ (14) a new industry that today produces hundreds of artificial flavors and odors. Some natural fragnances are easily synthesized; these _____ (15) vanillin, the aromatic ingredient in vanilla and benzaldehyde, the aromatic ingredient in wild cherries. Other fragnances, _____(16), have dozens, even hundreds of components. It has only recently been possible to separate and identify these ingredients by _____ (17) of gas chromatography and spectroscopy. Once the chemical identity is known, it is often possible _____ (18) them. Nevertheless, there are some complex substances which have still not been duplicated satisfactorily. _____ (19) is  the aroma of fresh coffee. Many of the chemical compounds that _____ (20)  these synthetics are identical to those _____ (21) in nature and are as harmless or harmful as the natural substances. New products must be tested for safety, and _____ (22) used in food, must be _____ (23) by the Food and Drug Administration.
12. A) An example            B) Such as          C) For example            D) So that
13. A) is extracted           B) extracts          C) extracted               D) is extracting
14. A) created               B) has created      C) had created           D) creates
15. A) include                B) consist            C) compose               D) maintain
16. A) however              B) but                 C) because                D) so
17. A) ways                  B) means             C) way                      D) mean
18.
A) to synthesize                            C) that for synthesizing
B) for synthesizing                         D) that to synthesize
19. A) One of these          B) Either of these       C) Some of these      D) Between these
20. A) put up                B) bring up              C) make up            D) set up
21. A) which found           B) are found             C) be found           D) found
22. A) when                  B) during                C) while              D) as
23. A) approved              B) proved                C) confirmed          D) claimed
Text 4.
Thirty-eight of the fifty American states have laws _____ (24)  them to execute people found guilty of capital crimes. Capital punishment is one of the _____ (25)  debated issues in the United States today. Opponents say the death sentence is too severe. Others say that people who kill should die for their crimes. In 1972, _____ (26)  Supreme Court of the United States banned executions. It _____ (27) its decision on two amendments to the Constitution. The court ruled that the death penalty was cruel and unusual _____ (28)  the way the states enforced it. Yet the decision left open the possibility that capital punishment might be accepted in the future. The decision meant this could happen if people _____ (29)  only for some crimes, under limited conditions. More than eight-hundred men and women have been executed in the United States _____ (30)  nineteen-seventy-six. Almost three-hundred of them were in the state of Texas. Three years ago, the governor of Illinois, George Ryan, decided the state could take no more chances that it might execute people who were not guilty. He suspended all executions in the state until their death penalty system was _____ .(31)   Governor Ryan _____ (32)  a committee of legal experts and other citizens to do this. After a two-year study, the committee raised questions about the fairness of _____ (33) . It also said some prisoners were given bad legal advice. It discovered wrongdoing by police officers as well. The committee suggested there _____ (34)  eighty-five reforms. They included _____ (35) to improve collecting and presenting evidence in cases that involved the death penalty.
24. A) permit                    B) permitting             C) which is permitted       D) permitted
25. A) widest                    B) wider                  C) much wider               D) most widely
26. A) –                   B) a                      C) the                      D) an
27. A) set                       B) organized              C) depended                 D) based
28. A) because of                B) because                C) due                      D) despite
29. A) executed                  B) had executed           C) were executed            D) will be executed
30. A) since                     B) in                     C) until                    D) before
31. A) studied                   B) could be studied       C) could study              D) could have studied
32. A) applied                   B) charged                C) established              D) responded
33. A) to sentence               B) to be sentenced        C) sentencing               D) sentenced
34. A) are                       B) to be                  C) being                    D) be
35. A) measures                  B) measurements           C) dimensions               D) divergences
 
 
SECTION II. READING COMPREHENSION
Text 1. (Questions 36-41) Read the text below and choose the best alternative according to the information in it.

Solar radiation is the principal source   of energy for the natural processes that create diversity and change on the earth. However, if the earth continually received energy from the sun without returning an equal amount to space, the oceans would boil and the land would be scorched. Since the average temperature of the atmosphere remains nearly the same from one year to the next, the earth must be returning about as much energy to space as it receives from the sun.
Of course, not all locations on earth have equal energy gains and losses. Each year, tropical regions receive a greater amount of energy than they radiate back into space. Polar regions, on the other hand, annually lose more energy to space than they receive from the sun. We know that the tropical regions are not progressively heating up nor are the polar regions cooling off. This means that there must be a flow, or flux, of energy from areas of excess to areas of deficiency. The atmosphere and oceans circulate the energy that the earth receives, transporting warm air and water from the topics toward the poles while moving cool air and water back toward the equator.
 
36. In line 3, “scorched” is closest in meaning to _____ .
A) burned                       B) flooded                        C) deserted                     D) damaged
37. In line 5, “it” refers to _____ .
A) energy                        B) the temperature          C) the earth                     D) space
38. In line 10, “areas of deficiency” means areas where something is _____.
A) lacking           B) incompatible                 C) adequate                    D) sufficient
39 . The temperature of the earth _____ .
A) is rising steadily because of the changes in the sun.
B) remains almost unchanged because the earth is cooled by space.
C) is rising steadily because the earth stores up energy from the  sun.
D) remains almost unchanged because the earth gives off as much energy as it absorbs.
40. How do we know that there is a flux of energy?
A) because the tropical regions are not heating up and polar regions are not cooling off.
B) because the earth receives energy from the sun and returns an equal amount to space.
C) because polar regions lose more energy to space than they receive from the sun.
D) because tropical regions lose more energy to space than they receive from the sun.
41. The energy received from the sun is _____ .
A) returned from the earth to the sun.
B) cooled.
C) radiated back into space.
D) redirected by the atmosphere and oceans.

Text 2. (Questions 42-49) Read the text and choose the best alternative according to the information in it.

TV presenters have always taken a lot of criticism. Daytime television hosts who drip with insincerity make it look easy and we all think we can do better. Presenting is one of the most sought-after jobs according to a recent survey. Every year, television companies are flooded with letters from young hopefuls. Unfortunately, their chances of getting on screen are slim. To do so, it is often who you know , not what you know.
But this doesn’t deter thousands from parting with their hard-earned cash to go on training courses in the hope that this will give them an advantage. I went along to a one-day presenters’ course held in a real television studio, with proper chat show sofas, two cameras and an Autocue (a machine put next to a camera, displaying the words to be spoken). It even had talkback, a sort of hearing aid the presenter wears to receive instructions, and there were even light and sound technicians.
Ten of us had turned up. Ambitions ranged from Paul’s- to read The News, to Kate’s- to host a game show. Tina was ‘ just doing it for a laugh’. Hayley was under no illusions about why she wanted to go on TV, “I’m really attracted to  the glamour of the job. I think if people are honest, that’s why they want to do it. I want to be really famous.” Others made virtuous noises about wanting to meet interesting people or make high quality programmes but, judging by the looks on everyone’s faces, Hayley had hit the nail on the head.
The initial task we were given was to talk about ourselves to camera. I volunteered to go first. Well, what could be so difficult? “Switch to  camera one, stand by, Fiona, and three to go … two to go … good luck.” Our tutor’s hand came down with a professional flourish, the lights came up and I was on. I stared deep into the camera lens for inspiration. It didn’t come. “Say something,” urged a voice in my talkback ear. This was the producer in the control room. “Erm, good afternoon, er, morning that is, ha ha, I forgot what what time it was
for a minute …” I gradually went silent.
 
42. What is the main subject of the first paragraph?
A) viewers’ attitudes towards TV presenters.
B) the kind of people who work as TV presenters.
C) how hard it is to become a TV presenter.
D) how easy TV presenters’ jobs are.
43. What does the writer say about the course she did in the second paragraph?
A) She wasn’t expecting it to be of benefit to those taking it.
B) She had difficulty understanding what some of the equipment did.
C) It wasn’t typical of many other courses of the same type.
D) It recreated the circumstances in which presenters actually work.
44. What does the writer say about the other people taking the course?
A) Some of them were looking forward to it more than others.
B) Most of them were doing it because they wanted to be famous
C) Some of them knew more about what it involved than others
D) Most of them wanted to present a specific kind of programe.
45. When the writer had to talk about herself on camera, she _____ .
A) was unsure about what the tutor wanted her to do.
B) got confused by what the producer said to her.
C) wasn’t sure when she was supposed to speak.
D) wasn’t able to think of anything to say about herself.
46. In line 4, ‘do so’ refers to _____ .
A) be employed as a presenter.
B) have slim chances.
C) know important people
D) receive a lot of papers.
47. In line 6, ‘this’ refers to _____ .
A) attending training courses         C) being a TV presenter
B) earning money in a tough way                                          D) spending money to get on screen
48. In line 11, the word ‘illusions’ is closest in meaning to ______.
A) theories   B)  false effects  C) ambitions  D) false ideas
49. In line 18, ‘it’ refers to ______.
A) light   B) inspiration  C) writer’s voice  D) writer’s comment          

Text 3. (Questions  50 – 53) Read the text and choose the best alternative according to the information in it.

The electronic computer began life during the Second World War as a high-powered calculating machine for dealing with complex mathematical problems, but in the intervening forty years it has changed a great deal.
The vast majority of computers nowadays are used for relatively humdrum tasks such as storing, classifying,  sorting, cataloguing and retrieving information of all kinds. This has become possible because of the cheapness of mass-produced chips; as the technology improves, the chips work at ever-increasing speeds, allowing more work to be done in the same time, and memories become ‘larger’, which really means cramming more data into the same tiny space. Much of this development is a spin-off from the space programme, and from work on controlling missile systems. The problems involved in controlling fleets of missiles are so huge that a massive research effort has gone into producing powerful computers to carry out the necessary calculations at the speed needed. Eventually, this effort should provide benefits in civilian life. Already one effect is accurate weather forecasts produced with the aid of large ‘supercomputers’, which benefit oil exploration, airlines, the construction industry and many others who need to plan for different weather conditions.
50. In line 4, “humdrum” is closest in meaning to _____ .
A) extraordinary  B) monotonous     C) exciting        D) new
51. In line 5, “this” refers to _____ .
A) using computers for humdrum tasks                              C) using computers as calculating machines
B) the vast majority of computers                                       D) the improvement in technology
52. What does “which” in line 13 refer to?
A) necessary calculations                                                C) planning for different weather conditions
B) benefits in civilian life                                                  D) accurate weather forecasts
53. The development in electronic computers was partly triggered by _____ .
A) the need for oil exploration and construction industry.
B) the need for improving weather forecasting
C) the progress made in space technology.
D) the cheapness of mass-produced chips.

Text 4.  (Questions 54 – 62) Read the text and choose the best alternative according to the information in it.

It’s a sound you will probably never hear, a sickened tree sending out a distress signal. But a group of scientists has heard the cries, and they think some insects also hear the trees and are drawn to them like vultures to a dying animal.
Researchers with the U.S. Forest Service fastened sensors to the bark of drought-stricken trees and clearly heard distress calls. According to one of the scientists, most parched trees transmit their plight in the 50- to 500-kilohertz range. (The unaided human ear can detect no more than 20 kilohertz.) Red oak, maple, white pine, and birch all make slightly different sounds in the form of vibrations at the surface of the wood.
The scientists think that the vibrations are created when the water columns inside tubes that run the length of the tree break, a result of too little water flowing through them. These fractured columns send out distinctive vibration patterns. Because some insects communicate at ultrasonic frequencies, they may pick up the trees’ vibrations and attack the weakened trees. Researchers are now running tests with potted trees that have been deprived of water to see if the sound is what attracts the insects. “Water-stressed trees also smell differently from other trees, and they experience thermal changes, so insects could be responding to something other than sound,” one scientist said.
 
54. Which of the following is the main topic of the passage?
A) the vibrations produced by insects
B) the mission of the U.S. Forest Service
C) the effect of insects on trees
D) the sounds made by trees
55. The word “them” in line 3 refers to _____.
A) trees             B) scientists       C) insects          D) vultures
56. The word “parched” in line 6 is closest in meaning to _____.
A) burned      B) dehydrated       C) recovered        D) reduced
57. The word “plight” in line 6 is closest in meaning to ______.
A) cry      B) condition      C) anger      D) struggle
58. The word “fractured” in line 11 is closest in meaning to _____.
A) long      B) blocked      C) hollow      D) broken
59. The word “they” in line 12 refers to _________.
A) ultrasonic frequencies  B) trees vibrations     C) some insects   D) weak trees
60. In the passage, the writer infers that the sounds produced by the trees _____.
A) serve as a form of communication among trees
B) are the same no matter what type of tree produces them
C) cannot be heard by the unaided human ear
D) fall into the 1 –20-kilohertz range
61. Which of the following could be considered a cause of the trees’ distress signals?
A) torn roots         B) attacks by insects         C) experiments by scientists        D) lack of water
62. It can be inferred from the passage that research concerning the distress signals of trees _____.
A) was conducted many years ago
B) has been unproductive
C) is continuing
D) is no longer sponsored by the government

SENTENCE DELETION (Questions 63-65)
In the following text, three sentences have been deleted. Choose from the list of sentences A-D the one which BEST fits each gap and write the letter of the sentence in the gap. There is ONE EXTRA sentence which you do NOT need to use.
              The End of Intelligence
“Will machines ever be more intelligent than humans? The answer is clearly, yes!” So began a lecture given last month to the British Association for the Advancement of  Science by Professor Kevin Warwick of Reading University.
Sounding like a mad scientist from a bad movie, Warwick continued to draw some worrying conclusions from his prediction. “If machines can be made as intelligent as humans, he said, “then that’s really it for the human race.” He believes that humans will not be in charge of the Earth anymore. The machines will take over and either destroy us or force us to lead a slave-type existence. “People who say it will never happen are not being realistic.”
At first glance, this looks like the fantasy of a man who has spent too long with toy robots and has lost touch with reality. (63) ____  For perhaps the most worrying thing about his view on the future of robots and the human race is that many other people working in artificial intelligence do not think that such views are particularly eccentric.
A few years ago, Hans Moravec, the director of the Mobile Robot Laboratory in Pittsburgh, published a book called Mind Children. In it he predicted the coming of the robot age and the end of the human race. (64) ____ We humans will benefit for a time from their work, but sooner or later, like natural children, they will seek their independence. Meanwhile, we, their aged parents will fade away. Both scientists believe that robots with human intelligence will be common within 50 years. Warwick claims that machines more intelligent than humans will be built ‘certainly within the lifetime of our children’.
Are all the people working in computers mad? (65) _____ Is there any reason to believe these predictions? “At present,” Warwick claims, “we can make an exact copy of the brain and intelligence of some more primitive life forms, for example, insects. We can also create artificial animals which can take on a more defensive or aggressive role.”

A) He also predicted that robots – the children of our minds –will be able to develop more quickly than we can to face the enormous challenges in the larger universe.
B) Or do they know something we don’t?
C) But what does it mean in practice?
D) But if Professoe Warwick is mad, then so are a lot of his colleagues.
 

SECTION III. WRITING
Write an essay of 250-300 words on ONE of the topics below. 
Use the regular format to organize your essay. (Introduction / thesis statement with controlling idea(s) / body paragraphs with specific examples / conclusion)
For question number 1,  you may use the graph given as support for your essay.
Why are big cities getting overcrowded?   Discuss.
What are the effects of computers on our lives?   Discuss.
Capital punishment should be abolished.  Agree or disagree.
NOTE: Examples for essays on the 3 topics above are given on the Proficiency page,  under  writing.
Key
1. c               
2. b
3. a
4. a
5. c
6. b
7. a
8. b
9. c
10. a
11. d
12. c
13. a
14. b
15. a
16. a
17. b
18. a
19. a
20. c
21. d
22. a
23. a
24. b
25. d
26. c
27. d
28. a
29. c
30. a
31. a
32. c
33. c
34. d
35. a
36. a
37. c
38. a
39. d
40. a
41. c
42. a
43. d
44. b
45. d
46. a
47. a
48. d
49. b
50. b
51. a
52. d
53. c
54. d
55. a
56. b
57. b
58. d
59. c
60. a
61. d
62. c
63. d
64. a
65. b

Sample Proficiency Test 1   
 
SECTION I. USE of ENGLISH /
Choose the alternative that best fits in each blank to make the texts meaningful.
Text 1.
To Clone or Not!
Britain’s Human Fertilization and Embryology Authority (HFEA) and the Human Genetics Advisory Commission (HGAC) have advised the government to let research on human cloning for therapeutic purposes 1_____ under specific circumstances. They recommended that the purposes 2_____ human embryos may be used for in research be extended. The government, 3_____, has decided to keep a complete ban on such research while other advisers reconsider the issue. In an editorial, New Scientist described this as a huge mistake and asked how 4_____. An expert advisory group has 5_____ advise on the recommendation by the HFEA and the HGAC. The report written by the HFEA and HGAC recognises that  extending the purposes is not a simple matter. It recommends that the government consider changing the law to allow further uses of human embryos in research. However, changing this law is a big step 6_____ further details on needs and risks and serious consideration of certain issues raised by using human embryos.
1. A) to proceed            B) which proceed C) proceed  D) and proceed
2. A) what                    B) which            C) whose    D) why
3. A) however               B) whereas         C) consequently             D) therefore
4. 
A) could holding up such vital research be justified
B) could they justify holding up such vital research
C) justified could holding up such vital research be
D) holding up such vital research could be justified
5. 
A) assigned to          C) been assigned for
B) been assigned to   D) been assigning for 
6.  A) where required         B) for requiring          C) requiring   D) to require

Text 2.
Ants and Traffic
Can ants provide answers to traffic problems? A German scientist says ants can teach humans how 7_____ traffic. 8_____ ant colonies for several years, Dirk Helbing, of Dresden University, was able to see how they 9_____with heavy insect traffic. In a scientific test, Helbing and colleagues from two other universities studied how ants crossed a bridge between their nest and a food source when they had a choice between two 10_____ paths. When there were few ants, or little traffic, they mainly used one path. This was because ants left traces of pheromones on paths 11_____ used and the more of these traces there were on a path, 12_____ to other ants. The ants only started to use the second path when the first one was becoming too crowded. Scientists say this is 13_____ to the way the growth of cities prevents main traffic routes from 14____. And they hope 15_____ the mathematical model of ‘ant algorithms’ to better regulate data traffic on the internet.
7.
A) can they regulate   C) can it be regulated 
B) them to regulate   D) to regulate
8.
A) Having studied   C) Being studied
B) For studying    D) To be studying
9. A) fell out   B) dealt              C) got along   D) took
10.
A) long equally                C) equally long
B) equal in length                          D) length equal
11. A) where  B) which C) that               D) they
12.
A) it was more attractive              C) the more attractive it was
B) it was more attractive than D) more attractive it was than
13. A) same   B) unlike C) different  D) similar
14.
A) getting blocked               C) to get blocked
B) to be blocked                           D) getting to block
15. A) that to use B) them to use  C) to use              D) they would use
Text 3.
Types of Diving
Of all the types of diving, free diving is the oldest and simplest.  In fact, people 16_____ into seas and oceans long before diving equipment was invented. 17_____ no equipment is necessary for free diving, most free divers use a face mask, foot fins, and a snorkel. Free divers must hold their breath under the surface. Most free divers can only descend 30 to 40 feet, 18 _____ some skilled divers can go as deep as 100 feet.  Scuba diving provides a greater 19_____ than free diving. The word scuba 20_____ self-contained underwater breathing apparatus. Scuba divers wear metal tanks with compressed air or other breathing gases. 21_____ using open-circuit equipment, a scuba diver simply breathes air from the tank  through a hose and 22_____ the exhaled air into the water. A closed-circuit breathing device, also called a re-breather, filters out carbon dioxide and other harmful gases and automatically adds oxygen, 23_____ the diver to breathe the same air over and over.
In surface supplied diving, divers wear helmets and water proof canvas suits. Today, sophisticated plastic helmets have replaced the heavy copper helmets which divers 24_____ in the past. A hose connected to compressors on a boat 25_____ air for the diver. Surface-supplied divers can go deeper than any other type of diver.
16.
A) would have dived    C) will have dived
B) had dived     D) have dived
17. A) However  B) Whether    C) Since  D) Although
18. A) while              B) instead of  C) in fact  D) contrary to
19. A) proportion B) range  C) composition  D) property
20. A) results from B) is derived from C) stands for  D) leads to
21. A) During  B) When  C) As long as  D) Providing that
22. A) releases  B) retreats  C) exploits  D) transports
23. A) to be enabled B) being enabled C) and enabling  D) enabling
24.
A)  would have worn    C) used to wear 
B)  would be wearing    D) used to wearing
25. A) provokes  B) provides  C) prevents  D) prohibits
Text 4.
Just Passing By
The planet Venus crosses directly in front of the sun only twice a century – and on June 8, 2004, this event happened for the first time since 1882. The transit always takes only about six hours. In 1627, the great German astronomer Johannes Kepler first 26_____ a transit of Venus, but he died 27_____ he could witness the 1631 event. In 1769, the explorer Captain James Cook – just a lieutenant at the time – made his first voyage to the South Pacific 28_____ to view that year’s transit from Tahiti. Moreover, more than 50 expeditions 29_____ from the U.S., Britain, Russia and other nations to every corner of the earth to see the 1874 transit. There was an important reason to make such efforts: 30_____ the moments a transit began and ended from different points on Earth, astronomers could use trigonometry to 31_____ calculate the distance from Earth to the sun. That was 32_____ in theory than in practice, though, and nowadays astronomers use other methods to measure the distance to the sun. Last June, the world was watching out of 33_____ and wondered at seeing a planet 34_____ across the face of the sun – first hand proof that the seemingly two-dimensional sky is anything but. A transit is coming June 6, 2012. The people who miss that one are out of luck because there 35_____ be another transit until 2117.
26. A) managed  B) positioned  C) established  D) predicted
27. A) before  B) unless  C) until   D) while
28. A) so that  B) in case  C) as well as  D) in order
29. A) are launched B) launched  C) were launched D) have launched
30.
A) having been recorded   C) that recorded
B) being recorded    D) by recording
31. A) frequently B) precisely  C) ultimately  D) absolutely
32. A) easier  B) easily  C) easiest  D) more easily
33. A) complexity B) determination C) curiosity  D) decision
34. A) move  B) to move  C) moved  D) being moved
35. A) needn’t  B) will               C) could  D) won’t

SECTION II. READING COMPREHENSION /
Text 1. Read the text and choose the alternative that best answers each question.

Want To Be Slim? Cut Your Blood Supply!

Scientists have found a new way to make the obese slim again – by cutting off the blood supply to the layers of fat that are a health hazard for hundreds of millions of people. The technique called “molecular liposuction” so far works only in mice. A team at the University of Houston, Texas, report in Nature Medicine Today that weeks of treatment by an experimental drug restored the normal weight of mice that had doubled their size on a high-fat “cafeteria” diet.
“If even a fraction of what we found in mice relates to human biology, then we are cautiously optimistic that there may be a new way to think about reversing obesity,” said Renata Pasqualini, of the University of Texas at Houston.
Obesity is now one of the biggest problems in world health. Almost one American in three is seriously overweight. One British person in four is clinically obese. Even in the developing world, obesity levels are rising rapidly. Obesity has been linked to adult-onset type 2 diabetes, cardiovascular hazards and increased risks of cancer. Health authorities have urged people to eat less, choose a diet richer in fruit and vegetables and exercise more.
Cosmetic surgeons have promoted liposuction – the drastic removal of fat – and stomach surgery. Geneticists have been trying to make a hereditary connection – because some groups of people seem to be at greater risk of obesity – and research groups have been studying the hormonal cycles linked with eating in the search for appetite-suppressing pills.
However, the Texas team tried an approach already being investigated as a cancer treatment. In theory, life-threatening tumours would first halt and then decline if you could cut off the blood supply to the cancerous tissue. The growth of fat tissue, too, depends on a steady supply of oxygen and nutrients delivered in the blood. These fat cells are abnormally greedy for oxygen, and half a kilo of fat contains a mile of blood vessels, according to one estimate. Blood vessels differ according to the “postal code addresses” they serve. So the Houston scientists, based at the university’s M.D. Anderson Cancer Centre, searched for unique protein markers that would identify only those blood cells that served fatty tissue.
They found one called prohibitin, already known to regulate cell survival and growth. They attached to it a synthetic drug already known from cancer trial to cause a cell to self-destruct. Then they injected it into mice that had become grossly overweight on a high-fat, sugary diet. Within four weeks, the mice had reached their normal weight again. The fat had been reabsorbed and metabolised. Other collaborators looked for evidence of toxic or unpleasant side effects – such as fat accumulation in the liver and blood – and found none. But further trials are needed.
 
36. Molecular liposuction is _____.
A) cutting out the fat layers that are a threat to the body
B) supplying blood to the layers of fat
C) stopping blood from getting to the fat layers
D) going on a high-fat “cafeteria” diet
37. Which of the following sentences is true according to the article?
A) Most Americans prefer molecular liposuction to liposuction.
B) Mice and human biology are totally different.
C) The drug hasn’t been experimented on humans yet.
D) Pasqualini doesn’t believe that reversing obesity is possible.
38. Obesity _____.
A) is more common in Britain than in America
B) has decreased sharply in the developing countries
C) is usually the result of cancer
D) may lead to cardiovascular problems
39. Cosmetic surgeons, geneticists and  research groups all _____.
A) promote liposuction as the remedy to obesity
B) have  different approaches in the treatment of obesity
C) seem to be at greater risk of obesity
D) study the hormonal cycles and search for appetite-suppressing pills
40. Fat cells _____.
A) need the nutrients in the blood
B) don’t need any oxygen
C) help treat tumours
D) supply blood to cancerous tissue
41. What does ‘it’ in line 28 refer to?
A) cell    B) survival                    C) growth                      D) prohibitin
42. The word ‘collaborators’ in line 31 could best be replaced by _____.
A) researchers             B) geneticists  C) surgeons    D) cosmetologists
43. The experimental drug _____.
A) seems to have toxic side effects
B) causes fat to accumulate in the liver
C) raises the amount of fat in the heart
D) causes a cell to destroy itself 
44. The article mainly deals with _____.               
A) how the biology of mice relates to the biology of humans
B) the connection found between cancer and obesity
C) how a high-fat “cafeteria” diet can be used for humans
D) new research connected with the treatment of obesity

Text 2. Read the text and choose the alternative that best answers each question.
New IDs

When defending his proposal for a national ID card scheme, United Kingdom Home Secretary David Blunkett said that it could be effective in fighting terrorism. Draft legislation outlining the plans for the scheme will be published on Monday and a pilot trial is due to begin soon. However, civil rights groups say it is a “myth” that the cards will prevent terror attacks, thus indicating their opposition to the proposal. As an answer to these groups, Mr. Blunkett told the BBC: “This is not a dream. This is real. This is about recognising the massive change that’s taken place in the world.” Speaking on a BBC programme called One’s Breakfast With Frost, he said the proposed programme would begin voluntarily before including the whole population. “Within three years we will be in a position to start everyone having a biometric passport issued and along with it a biometric card.” This would include specific identifiers like iris scans, finger prints or facial recognition. “Within seven years we’d start to move towards a position where people generally across the whole population have got an ID card,” he said. “At that point, we’ve agreed that we’ll present a report to parliament on how it’s working and whether it should be compulsory, and at that point we’ll have a vote.” Mr. Blunkett said the cards would stop terrorists from using multiple identities, which would help prevent attacks.
“The Spanish do have an ID card – but it isn’t a foolproof biometric card with a database, with the ability to test not only the card, but actually the person and the card they hold. That’s what will be potentially possible and this will ensure that they can’t have multiple identities.” Cards could also help fight so-called health tourism and benefit fraud, Mr. Blunkett suggested. “The exploitation of our services, particularly our health and welfare services, is something we’ll be able to control. In other words, it will stop fraud in such areas.” he said. “We’ll be able to ensure that through true identity we can avoid clandestine entry to the country and working illegally.” He also said that it would ensure that people who benefit from social welfare are only those who are entitled to it.  The scheme would not depend on people carrying their cards at all times. Mr. Blunkett said the technology would allow officials to double-check someone’s identity simply by scanning, for example, an iris or a fingerprint. He said: “This is about true identity: true identity will enable us to know who is who and who is in the country. Thus, we will be able to trace them. We will know what they’re entitled to, or what their intentions are.”
However, the proposal faces opposition among Labour’s own members, with Labour MP David Winnick saying the entire idea should be “dropped”. “I think this is a very costly exercise which will not do what is claimed by the home secretary and other enthusiasts,” he said. Civil rights group Liberty raised concerns that the government would be unable to keep personal data secure, raising privacy concerns. Executive director Shami Chakrabarti said, “David Blunkett is too quick to offer  various draconian measures as a magic bullet to erase fears and solve our current problems such as terrorism, illegal immigration and so on.” Campaigners say having several methods of identification, including passports, driving licences and benefit cards, is the safest option.
Ministers have said the £3.1 billion  cost of introducing a national ID card will be met by raising the cost of passports. Mr. Blunkett said it would cost approximately £31 per person to add biometric details to passports, and people would only pay around an extra £4 for the ID card element. But he said there would be concessions for people on low incomes, including the elderly and those applying for their first card at the age of 16, or poor people on welfare. Government sources say that under the new proposals, carrying false identity papers will become a specific offence for the first time, with offenders facing up to 10 years in jail.
 
45. The word ‘it’ in line 10 refers to _____.
A) biometric passport B) biometric card   C) every person           D) the proposal
46. The word ‘clandestine’ in line 23 is similar in meaning to _____.
A) restricted  B) permitted  C) secret  D) legal
47. The word ‘draconian’ in line 36 is similar in meaning to _____.
A) flexible      B) severe  C) loose             D) dangerous
48. The word ‘concessions’ in line 43 could best be replaced by _____.
A) reductions  B) classification  C) division  D) disadvantages
49. Which of the following is true about the national ID card?
A) Civil Rights groups are supportive of it.
B) It will be compulsory for everyone in the next three years.
C) There will be a vote in parliament in about seven years.
D) Mr. Blunkett does not think it is necessary to have a test period. 
50.  Which of the following does Mr. Blunkett claim?
A) Terrorist attacks cannot be prevented even if both the cards and the holders are tested.
B) Once the cards are in use, it will be possible to better control health and welfare services.
C) People across the country will have to carry their new ID cards with them all the time.
D) The Spanish are already using a biometric ID card just like the one he proposed.
51. Which is true according to the article?
A) The scheme is supported by most civilians in the country.
B) Illegal immigrants will probably be in favour of the scheme.
C) The implementation of the new card system has not raised any financial worries.
D) Members of Liberty think the new card may be a threat to people’s privacy.
52. Which of the following is not given by Blunkett as an advantage of the new ID card?
A) It will stop people from using multiple identities.
B) It will indirectly contribute to the economy of the country.
C) It will make it easy to trace the people who enter the country.
D) It will help fight terrorist attacks and illegal immigration.
53. Which of the following is not discussed in the article?
A) Why the government wants to stop paying welfare benefits to the unemployed
B) How people carrying false identification papers will be punished
C) Whether carrying false identification will be regarded as a specific offence
D) How much it will cost a person to have his/her new biometric ID card issued
54. The author’s purpose in writing this article is to _____.
A) introduce Home Secretary Blunkett’s proposal and the reactions it has received
B) explain how Blunkett’s proposal for a new ID card can help fight against terrorism
C) explain fraud such as illegal entry to the country and exploitation of social services
D) compare the newly proposed ID cards to the several other methods of identification

Text 3. Read the text and choose the alternative that best answers each question.
Eskimos vs. Wolves
 
It would be a mistake to assume that primitive societies are unable to realize the potential of their environment or to effectively cope with its demands. Given the general level of technology available, they do adapt to and manipulate their environment in a sophisticated and understanding manner for the sake of their own safety and comfort. It is possible to give countless examples to illustrate how primitive societies can effectively and somewhat shrewdly overcome the dangers of the environment. One such example is the way some Eskimo groups fight against wolves, which are a menace to their lives.
Wolves could perhaps be hunted down and killed. However, as this involves danger and causes a waste of time and energy, a simple yet ingenious device is employed. They have created a clever trap. A sharp sliver of bone is curled into a spring like shape, and seal blubber is moulded around it and left to freeze. This is then placed where it can be discovered by a hungry wolf, which, living up to its reputation, “wolfs it down”. Later, as the wolf digests “this time bomb” and as the blubber disappears, the bone uncurls and its sharp ends pierce the wolf’s stomach, causing internal bleeding and death. The job gets done! This is a fairly secure technique that utilizes the Eskimo appreciation of wolf psychology and its habits.
 
55. The word ‘they’ in line 3 refers to _____.
A) potentials of the environment  C) demands of the environment
B) assumed mistakes   D) primitive societies
56. The word ‘manipulate’ in line 3 is similar in meaning to _____.
A) control  B) check  C) fight     D) beat
57. The word ‘illustrate’ in line 5 could best be replaced by _____.
A) assert  B) argue  C) show  D) support
58. The word ‘their’ in line 7 refers to _____.
A) dangers  B) wolves  C) Eskimos  D) fights
59. The word ‘employed’ in line 9 could best be replaced by ______.
A) discovered  B) occupied  C) overcome  D) used 
60. The word ‘This’ in line 11 refers to _____.
A) a curled spring B) a sliver of bone C) seal blubber  D) the trap
 
61. The Eskimo’s method of killing wolves, as explained in the text, is _____.
A) one that requires placing ice in the wolf’s stomach
B) a more practical and clever solution than hunting
C) not very practical as it causes loss of time and energy
D) not a very secure technique since it causes death
62. The purpose of the text is to discuss _____.
A) how primitive societies can overcome environmental dangers through what little technology they have
B) why primitive societies, such as Eskimos, do not necessarily need gun
C) whether it would be possible for societies to survive without technology
D) how some Eskimo groups kill wolves without using advanced technology
 
Text 4. Gapped Text (Questions 63- 65)
Three sentences have been deleted from the text below. Choose  the  alternative (a -D)
that would best fit in each box (63 –65) and mark the answer on the answer sheet. There is one extra sentence which you do not need.
English in African Schools
Throughout Anglophone Africa, English is seen as the key to economic power and progress and it is the preferred language of education in African classrooms. Surveys carried out in a number of schools in Africa indicate that most students in schools and colleges there prefer to be instructed in English (or French) as this greatly increases their career prospects in a rapidly globalizing world. (63) _______________ UNESCO’s international literacy institute describes it as one of the most important challenges facing African countries this  millennium.
English is a colonial language, and it continued to be the official language after independence in virtually all African countries that were under British rule. In some cases, it was employed to avoid ethnic tensions; in all cases, it was retained because of its prestige and association with power. (64) ________________ Students were made to feel ashamed of their mother tongue and punished for speaking it at school. In Kenya, for example, speaking in the mother tongue was forbidden in schools and punished. One popular method was to embarrass pupils by making them carry around the skull of a dead animal all day.
Today, it is difficult to use the native languages because they have not been codified and standardised. There is also a shortage of teaching materials and trained teachers in the native languages. (65) __________________   Even the terms used to refer to these languages are controversial. They include such terms as ‘dialects’, ‘minority languages’ and ‘undeveloped languages’ – all of which suggest that these languages are not rich in expression and are unsuitable for modern needs. They are considered incapable of being part of a modern education which includes science and technology.
A) In contrast, the native languages were seen as backward and inferior.
B) This has often been used as an excuse for not adopting them in schools.
C) This preference has caused a debate as to whether education should be carried out in the 
     mother tongue or in the second language.
D) Teaching foreign languages has always been one of the most popular jobs in Africa.
SECTION III. WRITING
Write an essay of 250 – 300 words on ONE of the topics given below. Your essay must have an introduction / a clear thesis statement (with controlling idea/s), at least 2 body paragraphs with relevant supporting ideas and a conclusion. Your ideas should be organized properly.

With news readily available from electronic media, why are newspapers still popular? Discuss.
Plastic surgery for cosmetic reasons has become very popular, especially among women. Discuss the reasons for this.
How does reading influence a person’s life? Discuss.
How does the educational level of people’s parents affect their lives? Discuss.
 
WRITE YOUR ESSAY ON THE CODED SHEET PROVIDED.
Essays written on any other sheet will not be graded.
DO NOT WRITE HERE
Essays written on the pages of this booklet will NOT be graded.
KEY A VERSION
1. C
2. B
3. A
4. D
5. B
6. C
7. D
8. A
9. B
10. C
11. D
12. C
13. D
14. A
15. C
16. B
17. D
18. A
19. B
20. C
21. B
22. A
23. D
24. C
25. B
26. D
27. A
28. D
29. C
30. D
31. B
32. A
33. C
34. A
35. D
36. C
37. C
38. D
39. B
40. A
41. D
42. A
43. D
44. D
45. A
46. C
47. B
48. A
KEY A VERSION
49. C
50. B
51. D
52. B
53. A
54. A
55. D
56. A
57. C
58. C
59. D
60. B
61. B
62. A
63. C
64. A
65. B